Exambible offers free demo for passleader 400 101 exam. "CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0)", also known as 400 101 vce exam, is a Cisco Certification. This set of posts, Passing the Cisco ccie 400 101 exam, will help you answer those questions. The 400 101 ccie Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real Cisco 400 101 ccie exams and revised by experts!
Q111. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.
Q112. Refer to the exhibit.
Which technology can be used on the switch to enable host A to receive multicast packets for 22.214.171.124 but prevent host B from receiving them?
A. IGMP filtering
B. MLD snooping
C. IGMP snooping
D. MLD filtering
IGMP snooping is the process of listening to Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) network traffic. The feature allows a network switch to listen in on the IGMP conversation between hosts and routers. By listening to these conversations the switch maintains a map of which links need which IP multicast streams. Multicasts may be filtered from the links which do not need them and thus controls which ports receive specific multicast traffic.
Q113. A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment?
A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.
B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.
C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.
D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.
Q114. What is the most efficient way to confirm whether microbursts of traffic are occurring?
A. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show interface command.
B. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show controllers command.
C. Check the CPU utilization of the router.
D. Sniff the traffic and plot the packet rate over time.
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network. In order to troubleshoot microbursts, you need a packet sniffer that can capture traffic over a long period of time and allow you to analyze it in the form of a graph which displays the saturation points (packet rate during microbursts versus total available bandwidth). You can eventually trace it to the source causing the bursts (e.g. stock trading applications).
Reference: Adam, Paul (2014-07-12). All-in-One CCIE V5 Written Exam Guide (Kindle Locations 989-994). Kindle Edition.
Q115. Packets from a router with policy-based routing configured are failing to reach the next hop.
Which two additions can you make to the router configuration to enable the packets to flow correctly? (Choose two.)
A. Enable ip proxy-arp on the exiting interface.
B. Specify the next hop as an address.
C. Specify the next hop as an interface.
D. Add a match-any permit statement to the route map.
Here is an example:
Router(config)#route-map Engineers permit 20
Router(config-route-map)#match ip address 2
Router(config-route-map)#set interface Ethernet1
Here, instead of specifying a next-hop, it specifies that any packets matching this rule will be forwarded directly out the interface Ethernet1. This means that either the destination device must be on this segment, or there must be a router configured with Proxy ARP that can forward the packet to the ultimate destination.
Q116. Which three statements about bridge assurance are true? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge assurance must be enabled on both ends of a link.
B. Bridge assurance can be enabled on one end of a link or on both ends.
C. Bridge assurance is enabled on STP point-to-point links only.
D. Bridge assurance is enabled on STP multipoint links only.
E. If a bridge assurance port fails to receive a BPDU after a timeout, the port is put into a blocking state.
F. If a bridge assurance port fails to receive a BPDU after a timeout, the port is put into an error disabled state.
Bridge Assurance is enabled by default and can only be disabled globally. Also, Bridge Assurance can be enabled only on spanning tree network ports that are point-to-point links.
Finally, both ends of the link must have Bridge Assurance enabled.
With Bridge Assurance enabled, BPDUs are sent out on all operational network ports, including alternate and backup ports, for each hello time period. If the port does not receive a BPDU for a specified period, the port moves into the blocking state and is not used in the root port calculation. Once that port receives a BPDU, it resumes the normal spanning tree transitions.
Q117. Which two statements are true about RSTP? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RTSP uses a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
B. By default, RTSP does not use a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
C. If a designated port receives an inferior BPDU, it immediately triggers a reconfiguration.
D. By default, RTSP uses the topology change TC flag.
E. If a port receives a superior BPDU, it immediately replies with its own information, and no reconfiguration is triggered.
The RSTP does not have a separate topology change notification (TCN) BPDU. It uses the topology change (TC) flag to show the topology changes.
Q118. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 126.96.36.199.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 188.8.131.52.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 184.108.40.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 220.127.116.11.
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 18.104.22.168. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.
Q119. DRAG DROP
Drag each traceroute text character on the left to its meaning on the right.
Q120. Refer to the exhibit.
All of the routers on this network are running RIP. If you edit the R3 RIP process configuration to reduce the number of hops from R3 to R1, which statement about the configuration change is true?
A. Configuring no passive-interface for GigabitEthernet0/0 in the R3 RIP process reduces the number of hops to R1 by 2.
B. Configuring no passive-interface for GigabitEthernet0/0 in the R3 RIP process reduces the number of hops to R1 by 1.
C. Configuring no passive-interface for GigabitEthernet0/1 in the R3 RIP process reduces the number of hops to R1 by 3.
D. Configuring no passive-interface for GigabitEthernet0/1 in the R3 RIP process reduces the number of hops to R1 by 1.
By changing the link from R3 to R2 to not be passive, traffic can then take the direct route from R3-R2-R1 instead of the longer path of R3-R6-R5-R4-R1, resulting in two less hops.